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Weird math problem (2 Viewers)

iStudent

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This is a MX1 problem, but I came across this while doing Terry Lee's 4u book...

if , and initially m/s at , find v in terms of x and describe its resultant motion

Textbook's solution:








intiially, and

hence,



after simplifying and rearranging, you get this:

Compare this to what I did:







intially, and

hence,





after simplifying and rearranging, you get this:

as you can see, you get a plus sign which is different to the textbook method

Someone explain please
 

QZP

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Ran into this problem a while back too. Would like to know reasoning!!
 

aDimitri

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It's something to do with the abs value that we impose when we integrate. If you leave it as:

Then you get the same solution as the textbook.
 

iStudent

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I felt like LHS was easier to integrate this way. (just a habit)
it's still mathematically correct though
 

Squar3root

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I felt like LHS was easier to integrate this way. (just a habit)
it's still mathematically correct though
I may be wrong; but when you multiply both sides by -1 you also change the sign of the constant when you're integrating
 

iStudent

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I may be wrong; but when you multiply both sides by -1 you also change the sign of the constant when you're integrating
I don't think that matters.. :/ because it's a constant.
I think the absolute value sign when integrating needs to be reworked.
 

Squar3root

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Just look at the math lol... this has nothing to do with T.Lee or some textbook. OP found a contradiction in two different, (seemingly) valid methods and that's the problem
OP did mention (in his first line) that it is out of TL's book lol :/ and i was thinking maybe TL made an error (unlikely)
 

braintic

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When you do the rearrangment (the bit you didn't show), why didn't you get a +/- due to the absolute value?
You then simply have to choose the correct sign to match the initial conditions. That makes it a minus.
 

braintic

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log(-1) = i*pi
Just wondering, other than the fact that it is mathematically consistent, can anyone actually visualize this?
What does it really mean to say that e^(i.pi) = -1 ??
Does anyone have some insight which goes beyond just doing mindless algebra?
 

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