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    BoS Maths Trials 2018

    Hey with Q16 d) i) we use the fact that I(1/b) = I(b) - 2*pi*ln(b), which leads to an obvious statement which makes the show question true. However, we are using the result from c) v) which is only reached assuming a > 1. In d) b > 0. So isnt that a logical fallacy? Note you have to use part i...
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