Hi all, I am a bit confused by the last part of the following question. I wonder whether the velocity will ever each 0 or not. The thing is v=cos^2(x) which means when x=pi/2 v=0. However, the expression for x in terms of t is x=tan^-1(t) which means that each will never reach pi/2? If that is the case then v will never reach zero? However the restriction for x is between 0 and pi/2 which means x can be pi/2 but if so then what will t be? infinity? but t can never physically be infinity,,,
Sorry if the paragraph above does not make much sense. I actually don't know what I am trying to say lol.
Thank you so much for the help!
Sorry if the paragraph above does not make much sense. I actually don't know what I am trying to say lol.
Thank you so much for the help!