The Bograt
boredofuni
Solve:
sin-1 x = cos-1 x (where sin-1 is inverse sine etc)
I can get an answer (1/root2) but I don't think the way I do it is allowed, especially if they ask you to prove it.
Can you just say :. sin x = cos x ?
tan x = 1
x = pi/4
and then take the inverse sin of pi/4 ?
Or is it more complicated than that?
sin-1 x = cos-1 x (where sin-1 is inverse sine etc)
I can get an answer (1/root2) but I don't think the way I do it is allowed, especially if they ask you to prove it.
Can you just say :. sin x = cos x ?
tan x = 1
x = pi/4
and then take the inverse sin of pi/4 ?
Or is it more complicated than that?