gordo
Resident Jew
supposing it has real coefficients,
how do u prove it?
how do u prove it?
I don't really follow this whole bit. Where does m come from? Its obviously meant to be something to do with the root but you seem to have pulled it out of the air. Also notewithoutaface said:x<sup>k+1</sup>+p<sub>k</sub>x<sup>k</sup>+...+p<sub>0</sub>=0
Can be expressed
x<sup>k+1</sup>+(m+d<sub>k-1</sub>)x<sup>k</sup>+...+d<sub>0</sub>=0
(x+m)(x<sup>k</sup>+ d<sub>k-1</sub>x<sup>k-1</sup>+...+d<sub>0</sub>)=0
(x+m)(x-a<sub>k</sub>)(x-a<sub>k-1</sub>)...(x-a<sub>1</sub>)=0
There's probably something wrong with what I wrote above, can someone point it out for me?
ahh coolwithoutaface said:PS Gordo you were in my ENGG1801 lecture today.
I still don't understand your argument. In your original post you have a d<sub>0</sub> but when you expand out your result you get md<sub>0</sub>.withoutaface said:well for the expansion you get the coeffiecient for x^n-1 from within the right brackets moving forward to become part of x^n's coefficient due to being multiplied by x, and then you have the other part coming from x^n's original coeffiecient multiplied by m. Hence (mdn+dn-1)xn results in the expansion.