Reduction Formula question (1 Viewer)

[WEMG]

For this question, how do I show for n

2. I have already shown the first part.

 

[nrlwinner]

You don't have to show that because if I was less than 2, the I(n-2) would be negative and therefore the equation won't work will just keep on going. I0 is the last value for reduction formulaes

 

[davidbarnes]

Slightly off but, deriving reduction forumale is pain in the ass.

 

[Bored Of Fail]

Slightly off but, deriving reduction forumale is pain in the ass.

not that much just break it into ( tan x ) ^2 ( tan x ) ^(n-2)

then use integration by parts with u= ( tanx ) ^(n-2) and dv = ( tanx)^2 , and use the identity sin^2 + cos^2 =1 to turn tan^2 into something easy to integrate

you just have to do a few examples, most of the time you can tell how to split up the integral based on what you are trying to prove

 

[Bored Of Fail]

at OP when it says prove it true for n>=2, that is just kind of a technicality that they have decided to include because as someone as said I ( 1 ) would not be defined. You dont have to prove that the reduction formula is true for n>=2 , you just prove it for general values of n but they have told you that it is only true for n>=2

 

[WEMG]

Okay thanks