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u could just use integration by partsView attachment 47360
View attachment 47361View attachment 47362
I know i did a longer way, but I was wondering why my answer is wrong because I tried to find the matching area for normal cos curve and integrated from there?
in the original cos inverse curve the integral would be equivalent to the area under the curve as cos inverse is always positive (A1 + A2)I know i did a longer way, but I was wondering why my answer is wrong because I tried to find the matching area for normal cos curve and integrated from there?
OHHH THAT MAKES SENSE NOW TYin the original cos inverse curve the integral would be equivalent to the area under the curve as cos inverse is always positive (A1 + A2)
so the integral that you perform should have the area that you shaded and not the definite integral (so when you evaluate A2 it should be π - 1 instead - so A1 + A2 = 1 + (π - 1) )
sorry if that's confusing idk how to word it