Absolutezero
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But who actually knew what these terms meant before looking them up...a bilabial fricative... the labial-velar approximant sound
But who actually knew what these terms meant before looking them up...a bilabial fricative... the labial-velar approximant sound
Very true!I guess it depends on your construction of w
if w = v x v
then,
w = vv
Thus,
w = v^2
is correct.
So cool that you even went to look this up! ^_^ roflingW
"The earliest form of the letter W was a doubled V used in the 7th century by the earliest writers of Old English; it is from this <uu> digraph that the modern name "double U" comes. This digraph was not extensively used, as its sound was usually represented instead by the runic wynn (Ƿ), but W gained popularity after the Norman Conquest, and by 1300 it had taken wynn's place in common use. Other forms of the letter were a pair of Vs whose branches cross in the middle. An obsolete, cursive form found in the nineteenth century in both English and German was in the form of an "n" whose rightmost branch curved around as in a cursive "v" (compare the shape of ƕ).
The sounds /w/ (spelled with U/V) and /b/ (spelled B) of Classical Latin developed into a bilabial fricative /β/ between vowels, in Early Medieval Latin. Therefore, V no longer represented adequately the labial-velar approximant sound /w/ of Old High German. In later German, this phoneme /w/ became /v/; this is why German W represents that sound. In Dutch, it became a labiodental approximant /ʋ/ (with the exception of words with EEUW, which have /eːβ/), or other diphthongs containing -uw. However, in many Dutch speaking areas, such as Flanders and Suriname the /β/ pronunciation is used at all times.
The ancient Phoenician letter shin had a W shape; the sounds and histories of the two letters, however, are entirely unrelated—shin represented /ʃ/ or /s/, and developed into the Latin alphabet S."
... the correct answer according to wikipedia
This makes no sense...perhaps w = 1
y=w
y'=1
That would mean the derivative of "w" is 1, not "w" itself.perhaps w = 1
y=w
y'=1
It would have to be inverse of n x n or n^2.... i.e. then it would be a w.That would mean the derivative of "w" is 1, not "w" itself.
If w=1 and y = w, then y' = 0.
Anyway, the question itself has already been solved
v x v
Unless, it's n x n, and we must somehow flip it upside down. Or rightside up to be precise.
Are you sure this isn't an extension 2 question?
That would mean the derivative of "w" is 1, not "w" itself.
If w=1 and y = w, then y' = 0.
Anyway, the question itself has already been solved
v x v
Unless, it's n x n, and we must somehow flip it upside down. Or rightside up to be precise.
Are you sure this isn't an extension 2 question?
kurt.physics is my maths hero ^_^or how about,
v x u = w
on one really considered that possibility.
this is sure getting quite hard, think we should get lolokay or namu, into this thread.
Dammit, didn't work. Anyone got any other ideas?
Would there happen to be a person with telekinetic abilities in the house? Or perhaps an absurdly loud voice? Our feeble vocal chords were not enough to stir the Namu.
Where's your class and elegance? PMing him is a terrible idea... he must come to us!...... or we can just pm him
oh fark, sorry about that.Where's your class and elegance? PMing him is a terrible idea... he must come to us!