APCSfan
Member
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- Sep 8, 2008
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- HSC
- 2010
yeh they are, Re = 2(1.08)/30(1-0.15) + 0.08 = 16.47% (flotation cost essentially reduces its value)Btw anyone help me on Q13 of the 2006 S1 paper. I don't seem to be getting any of the answers, which is ironic :/
Are the flotation costs relevant to the question? :O
same for preference shares ==> Rp = 2/20(1-0.1) = 11.11%
you should end up with WACC = 12.3%
And then just solve for Tax, end up with T = 32.86% (B)