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This integral has no elementary indefinite integral, so I sincerely doubt it can be done without substitution.Can this question be done without substitution? If so please if possible show me how.
Thanks
Yes it looked as so to me but just wanted to confirm.This integral has no elementary indefinite integral, so I sincerely doubt it can be done without substitution.
Moreover the bounds 2 and 1/2 are very special and designed for the specific sub u=1/x
You can use integration by parts........This integral has no elementary indefinite integral, so I sincerely doubt it can be done without substitution.
Moreover the bounds 2 and 1/2 are very special and designed for the specific sub u=1/x
Can you tell me how you would continue from:You can use integration by parts........
should get I = (lnx)(tan^-1(x)) - Integration of ((tan^-1(x))/x)dx
But it gets very messy.
Can you tell me how you would continue from:
?
Because I don't think that is possible with elementary functions
YesIm assuming this is extension 2 ?