eternallyboreduser
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Would graphing be sufficient? Idk why but that looks like smn u could prove using induction too??? Kinda stuck ngl, cant think of any way other than subbing numbers but thats not rlly proving itView attachment 41871View attachment 41871
have not yet learnt that, is there another way?induction
induction is the right method. I'd say any other method wouldn't be strong enough to fully prove the inequal. for all real k.have not yet learnt that, is there another way?
do you mind working it out for me? i just wanna see how it goes lol, also theres a condition that k lies between zero and oneinduction is the right method. I'd say any other method wouldn't be strong enough to fully prove the inequal. for all real k.
I might be a bit but yeah sure lol. currently running errands.do you mind working it out for me? i just wanna see how it goes lol, also theres a condition that k lies between zero and one
is there any information on what n is? i dont think this would be a true statement if theres no restriction on n which can be seen in this desmos graph??? Kinda stuck ngl, cant think of any way other than subbing numbers but thats not rlly proving itView attachment 41871View attachment 41871
actually nvm i dont think this proof is valid as well since 0<k<1 oops.for the specific case of n=2 however u could probably just use the binomial theorem writing 3/4 as 1/2 +1/(2^2)
Hence true for the case that n=2
the n is a ‘+ 1’ LOLis there any information on what n is? i dont think this would be a true statement if theres no restriction on n which can be seen in this desmos graphView attachment 41875
dyk the basics/fundamentals of induction yet or?do you mind working it out for me? i just wanna see how it goes lol, also theres a condition that k lies between zero and one
Nope have not touched that topic yetdyk the basics/fundamentals of induction yet or?
without doing the theory, the working will make 0 sense. just leave the qn for now. Or if ur keen, send me an email (via dm), i have some old notes that might help u learn itNope have not touched that topic yet
Alright tysmwithout doing the theory, the working will make 0 sense. just leave the qn for now. Or if ur keen, send me an email, i have some old notes that might help u learn it
i just realised this is invalid since u cant apply the binomial theorem once again...if you wanted to do the question without induction btw heres the working out:
Notice that by the binomial theorem as:
Now for
Hence,
Huge KL fan too.i just realised this is invalid since u cant apply the binomial theorem once again...
well another approach u could do is RHS-LHS
Note that and are increasing for all real numbers k
Since 0<k<1, and similarily,
Also, -1<k-1<0, so
Hence
surely i didnt make another error right