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Except for trivial or easy cases where there is only 1 cash flow with i in it or you can factorise i out via cubic or quadratic etc, no. Just use excel. You can use the IRR function or you can write it yourself like in the example attached. You use goal seek or solver to determine the rate. Also...

IRR and NPV are linked. For example, say project A has Cash Flows of -100 at time 0, 20 at time 1, ... , 20 at time 4 and 50 at time 5. What's the present value of these cash flows? -100+\frac{20}{(1+i)}+\frac{20}{(1+i)^{2}}+\frac{20}{(1+i)^{3}}+\frac{20}{(1+i)^{4}}+\frac{50}{(1+i)^{5}}...

doing good but these questions for acst202 you gotta read carefully cause they have dates and day counts... @ when you have a calendar in your formula sheet

I'm a 2 hour drive lol

the maths was very very basic and I've found tutors/lecturers are very hit and miss in non-actuarial. If you're doing 111 get prashan if you're doing 110 read the textbook. I legit don't know why they had a lecture with 100 slides that the lecturer did in 48 min...

youll be right just get the lost on campus app on your phone

Yeah I am also going. I also drive lol. Ima just get changed later although ill miss half of it.

No this is financial maths for actuaries. In saying that, you will encounter some of it like interest rates compounded continuously or momently etc. I just think the treatment of the material is a little different. I'll let you know though :)

Dw all good standard integral properties

Hey, I think the answer is yes but I can't clearly explain why. Help please :)

hey cats whats the assessment format for afas200 I might do it as a people planet in s3 this year with 204

acst101 93 i guess thats alright, but my gpa is improving 6.67

eek

S3 results released soon

Heads up law and actl will be a nightmare lol gl

Thanks for the help guys I realised my errors and can do it/understand it now. Thanks heaps! I'd upload the solution but I don't know how to put the actuarial angle in the bos LaTeX editor only on the LaTeX editor on my computer. That and you guys would find it very boring :)

Oh yeah sorry I skipped stuff as well v=e^{-\delta}, where v is (1+i)^-1, so discounting whatever for 1 period but delta is the force or the rate of interest payable continously. so v=(1+i)^-1=e^-delta

Nope gotta be doing a degree that falls within the faculty of business and economics

I think I must be doing something wrong. For the summation I just want \sum_{t=1}^{n}te^{-\delta t} \\ \text{However I get} \sum_{t=1}^{n} -\frac{t}{\delta}e^{-\delta t}[1-e^{\delta}]

oh sorry I should've explained it, the LHS= the present value of a level increasing annuity payable continuously for n years at a rate of i percent p/a