er....no
I get something completely different
I= integral(u^2/u^4+1)
=integral (u^2)/(u^2+sqr(2)u+1)(u^2-sqr(2)u+1)
= integral ((u^2+1)/(u^2+sqr(2)u+1)(u^2-sqr(2)u+1) - 1/(u^4+1))
= integral (1/2 (1/(u^2+sqr(2)u+1) + 1/(u^2-sqr(2)u+1)) - I
4I=integral (1/((u+1/sqr(2))^2 +1/2) + 1/((u-1/sqr(2)^2 +1/2))
I=1/4 (sqr(2)tan^-1 (sqr(2)(u+1/sqr(2)) + sqr(2)tan^-1(sqr(2)(u-1/sqr(2)))
I= 1/4 (sqr(2) *pi/2 *2)
I=pi*sqr(2)/4
and no, i haven't checked my algebra... so someone tell me if this is even remotely correct please
But i know the answer posted by stan has got to be incorrect, as the limit of integral 1/(u^2+1) from 0 to infinity is pi/2, so it would not make much sense if the limit of the integral of 1/(u^4+1), which is smaller, is infinity, plus, technically infinity is not a limit, so it would be misleading for a limit question to have an answer of infinity