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I have used the result that the integral of e^(Ax + B) with respect to x is e^(Ax + B) / A, when A and B are constants.Originally posted by Rmd_1
= pi * int (from 1 to 3) e^2y dy
= pi * [e^2y / 2] (from 1 to 3)
but how cau u get from e^2y dy to [e^2y / 2]
is there have any theorem or what? i learn it by myself.
I dont like it when teachers yell at meOriginally posted by CM_Tutor
The integral of e^f(x) is not repeat NOT e^f(x) / f'(x). This is a shortuct that some people use, that happens to work for a variety of HSC questions - including the one that Rmd_1 is aking about. Nevertheless, IT SHOULD NOT BE USED, as it is not mathematically valid - I know some teachers teach it, but that doesn't make it true.
Breathing out, and calming down ...
Sorry Heinz, you've hit on one of my pet hates.![]()
well its sorta like that? lol. (im slowly digging my own grave arent i?)Originally posted by CM_Tutor
I am not a teacher, and i am trying to help you (and others). The result you claim is a dangerous and (unfortunately) common misconception. It works for most HSC questions, and that just makes it more dangerous, as it allows it to spread. As I said, it is one of my pet hates.
PS: I just looked at p 409 of 2u Fitzpatrick, and I don't see this result claimed.
Originally posted by Rmd_1
one more question : )
By considering coefficient of x^4 on both sides of
(1+x)^20=(1+x)^10(1+x)^10 , show that
20C4=2(10C0*10C4+10C1*10C3)+(10C2)^2.
that's a little bit hard