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DMT (de moive's theorem) q. (1 Viewer)

astj

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I've converted 1+i and 1-i into mod-arg form and subbed the n in but I don't know how to get the RHS as well as part ii. Thanks in advance
 

cossine

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I've converted 1+i and 1-i into mod-arg form and subbed the n in but I don't know how to get the RHS as well as part ii. Thanks in advance
I think what is going on they are applying binomial theorem.

Basically you should try expand (1+i)^n and (1-i)^n.

I will need to double check to make sure.
 

WeiWeiMan

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View attachment 42144
I've converted 1+i and 1-i into mod-arg form and subbed the n in but I don't know how to get the RHS as well as part ii. Thanks in advance
1+i=√2cisπ/4
1-i = √2cis(-π/4)

(√2cisπ/4)^n+(√2cis(-π/4))^n

= √2^n (cis(nπ/4)+cis(-nπ/4))

=2(√2)^n cos(nπ/4) QED as req blah blah blah

for part ii do as cossine said (use binomial expansion) and see what happens
 

astj

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1+i=√2cisπ/4
1-i = √2cis(-π/4)

(√2cisπ/4)^n+(√2cis(-π/4))^n

= √2^n (cis(nπ/4)+cis(-nπ/4))

=2(√2)^n cos(nπ/4) QED as req blah blah blah

for part ii do as cossine said (use binomial expansion) and see what happens
okk cool thanks, how would you do part ii then?
 

Lith_30

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part ii)
The question states that we should use the result from part i. Lets use the statement that n is divisible by 4, that is we suppose that .
Then we put that into the result from part i, convert it back into terms of n, .

Now the LHS of that question contains a bunch of n choose expressions, which suggests binomial expansion, so we will expand
which simplifies to

now equating these two new expressions gives us the answer.
 

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