toknblackguy said:
ive got a question
lecture 9 page 11
why was no conclusion drawn from the PQI?
isn't it is PQI <=1
PtXt <= PtXb and so Xb RP Xt ?
No...
Because current consumption at current prices is cheaper than base consumption at current prices. Therefore we cannot afford base consumption.
Because we cannot afford base consumption, nothing is RP. If we cant afford it we cant deduce that anything is RP.
The rules are that if the PQI > 1 then we can infer a RP because one is prefered to the other whilst both goods can be afforded.
and from the LPI, if >=1,
PtXb >= PbXb so can't we conclude that prices have risen?
again:
if base consumption at current prices is more expensive than base consumption at base prices we cant infer anything as this says nothing about two different consumption bundles (as only one consumption bundle is being looked at).
In order to infer a RP you need to look at the LPI's relationship to Mt / Mp.