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Geometry/Complex Numbers (1 Viewer)

riVa0o

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Mar 31, 2004
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Originally posted by nike33
ok... DZ is parrallel to BE

hence a perpindicular from DZ will perpindiculary cut BE
now as DZ = 2OE (proven using similar triangle rations)
the midpoint of DZ ie m will pass though O in this example (due to the paralled lines)

it has to cut 'o' as MZ = OE = DM and ZE = MO
and, if it didnt cut o then DO =! OC
this is probably a bit old seeing as everyone done it, but can someone explain to me why you can't practically finish the question off once you find that triangle DZC|||TriangleEOC?
because the sides are in the ratio of 2:1, so wouldn't it follow that OC=2DC and therefore DO=OC??
 

nike33

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Feb 18, 2004
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Originally posted by riVa0o
this is probably a bit old seeing as everyone done it, but can someone explain to me why you can't practically finish the question off once you find that triangle DZC|||TriangleEOC?
because the sides are in the ratio of 2:1, so wouldn't it follow that OC=2DC and therefore DO=OC??
you can, but as it was a show question...hehe
 

riVa0o

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does that mean we could just write that ratio thing in an exam rather than all that extra stuff ><
 

nike33

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maybe, in an exam personally i would do the other stuff, just from experience getting screwed so many 1/2 marks due to picky teachers
 

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