Lugia101101
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- Sep 4, 2016
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- 2016
Last one does feel like a cheat though.
Last edited:
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Last one is meant to follow from the previous two. These aren't unconnected problems
Last one does feel like a cheat though.
A bit confused. What do you mean by 'strictly monotonic'? Or were you intending to say strictly increasing/decreasing (i.e. f'(x)≠0)For a function to be invertable, it must be defined such that it is one-to-one. If a function is monotone, then everyvalue will result in a single value of
, however, the function must be strictly monotonic, else there could exist two values
and
such that
. So if the function is one-to-one, then there exists an inverse, and hence
will only have an inverse if it is strictly monotone.
For question 3:
Q4 is a trick question
Note that arctan(t) + arctan(1/t) is only equal to pi/2 if t := a/b > 0. If t < 0, then it's -pi/2. The result in the question in the case t < 0 is similar, but with a minus sign in front of one of the trig. functions.
Auxiliary! wow thats cleverThe inspiration of that question was actually just the fact
a sin(x) + b cos(x) = b cos(x) + a sin(x)