D denyag New Member Joined Mar 9, 2009 Messages 19 Gender Male HSC 2010 May 25, 2010 #1 (int with limits 1-0) x(1-x)^n dx Prove this = n!/(n+2)! thanks for looking
T Tofuu Member Joined Jul 31, 2008 Messages 319 Gender Undisclosed HSC 2010 May 25, 2010 #2 by parts Last edited: May 25, 2010
T Tofuu Member Joined Jul 31, 2008 Messages 319 Gender Undisclosed HSC 2010 May 25, 2010 #3 if its a prove question, you can kinda work backwards on it, but other wise, i wouldn't think about putting it in fatorial form
if its a prove question, you can kinda work backwards on it, but other wise, i wouldn't think about putting it in fatorial form
D denyag New Member Joined Mar 9, 2009 Messages 19 Gender Male HSC 2010 May 25, 2010 #4 Tofuu said: if its a prove question, you can kinda work backwards on it, but other wise, i wouldn't think about putting it in fatorial form Click to expand... cheers guys
Tofuu said: if its a prove question, you can kinda work backwards on it, but other wise, i wouldn't think about putting it in fatorial form Click to expand... cheers guys
D Drongoski Well-Known Member Joined Feb 22, 2009 Messages 4,235 Gender Male HSC N/A May 26, 2010 #5 Another way (without ibp) Last edited: May 26, 2010
Trebla Administrator Administrator Joined Feb 16, 2005 Messages 8,392 Gender Male HSC 2006 May 26, 2010 #6
Affinity Active Member Joined Jun 9, 2003 Messages 2,046 Location Oslo Gender Undisclosed HSC 2003 May 27, 2010 #8 This is a special case of the Beta function, for positive integers m,n you can prove using integration by parts that B(m+1,n+1) = (int with limits 1-0) x^m(1-x)^n dx = m!n!/(m+n+1)!
This is a special case of the Beta function, for positive integers m,n you can prove using integration by parts that B(m+1,n+1) = (int with limits 1-0) x^m(1-x)^n dx = m!n!/(m+n+1)!
