kurenaishu07
New Member
- Joined
- Jun 17, 2024
- Messages
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- Male
- HSC
- 2024
Why does a surface with resistive force mkv^2 have displacement given by x = 1/k(ln(1+ukt)), hence divering, whereas a surface with resistive force mkv has displacement x = u/k((1-e^-kt)), and converges to x = u/k. Is this because the quadratic drag model is incorrect?