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facebooknerd123

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a car of mass 2 tonnes is rounding curve of radius 840m on level track at 90km/hr show that force of friction between wheels and ground is 1488N
isn't F = uN? u = friction coefficient.
 

InteGrand

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so mv^2 /r is still the max? or is just the required? does this show that even if you travel around a corner with like 1000N, increasing your speed by like 0.001 m/s wouldn't cause u to swerve away?
 
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Drongoski

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Another masterly piece of unstinting help from InteGrand!

This is a simple but subtle idea that most people without a little background in physics/mechanics find confusing. The 'uN' as Grand has explained is the maximum frictional force that can be generated. So slippage occurs when the frictional force, depended upon to provide some or all of the required centripetal force, is insufficient (i.e. exceeds the 'uN'). The other simple idea causing confusion is: the frictional force seems to be able to act in 2 directions, say up a slope and down the slope. In fact friction has no fixed direction; it acts in the direction opposing motion; i.e. it acts in the direction opposing (opposite to) the direction of resultant (nett) velocity.
 
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Drongoski

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But is a characteristic of the surface; a rough surface will have a higher value than a smoother one. It's value is found empirically, I'd imagine.

There are also the coeff. of static friction and the coeff. of kinetic friction, if this rusty brain of mine remembers correctly. They are supposed to differ.


Edit

On reflection, the friction between 2 surfaces ought to be a function of the coeffs. of both surfaces rather than that of the of one surface alone. Wonder what the actual facts are. Must be well-established by now.
 
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InteGrand

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I don't mean it's impossible to determine a value for μ, I mean that we can't find its value using the data in the question.
 

braintic

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But is a characteristic of the surface; a rough surface will have a higher value than a smoother one. It's value is found empirically, I'd imagine.

There are also the coeff. of static friction and the coeff. of kinetic friction, if this rusty brain of mine remembers correctly. They are supposed to differ.


Edit

On reflection, the friction between 2 surfaces ought to be a function of the coeffs. of both surfaces rather than that of the of one surface alone. Wonder what the actual facts are. Must be well-established by now.
Just to add to that, as long as the car is travelling in a circle, it is the coefficient of static friction that is operating.

But the moment that the car begins to slide, the coefficient of kinetic friction takes over.

But the coefficient of kinetic friction is lower than the coefficient of static friction.

This means that what Integrand said before is not quite right. The car would slide out to a radius at which the coefficient of kinetic friction is just enough to supply the centripetal force. This radius is greater than that suggested by the coefficient of static friction. So when the car stops sliding and static friction again takes over, the greatest possible value of static friction is not being supplied. Which means that there is some leeway for the car to speed up without sliding.


Also, I'm not sure if "the friction between 2 surfaces ought to be a function of the coeffs. of both surfaces" is correct. The coefficient of friction is a value that already depends on the properties of both surfaces in contact. I don't think it is meaningful to talk of the coefficient of friction of say bitumen. It is like one hand clapping. But there would be a coefficient of friction for bitumen in contact with rubber, and another one for when this surface is lubricated with water. I doubt there is some generic function you could apply to the coefficients of each surface (if they existed) to get the combined coefficient. But I haven't looked it up, so I am prepared to be corrected.
 
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