xXnukerrrXx
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If we are to prove LHS=RHS can we use the method of LHS-RHS=0 thus proving the fact LHS has to be equal to RHS.
oh thanksYou can prove by showing:
1) LHS = RHS
2) RHS = LHS
3) LHS = M and RHS = M
4) LHS - RHS = 0
First 2 if you can, being most direct. Usually you start from a 'larger' expression to derive the 'simpler' one.
If you can do via 3) you can do via 1) or 2); people sometimes resort to 3) because tey are not very confident with their manipulation.
its epic, so you dont have to think as much!I use 3) so much LOL
Wouldn't doing that be Show that not prove? I shall check with my teachers.SpiralFlex, are you sure about that?
I personally don't see anything wrong with proving LHS - RHS = 0, and so deriving that LHS = RHS IF the wording of the question allows so. For eg. in a prove by 'simplifying' or a 'Hence prove that' question this method wouldn't be appropriate.
No, if you show that the identity RHS - LHS = 0, then you've PROVED it = 0. How does that not constitute proving it, given the information you already have?Wouldn't doing that be Show that not prove? I shall check with my teachers.