Probability question (1 Viewer)

[Hermes1]

In a lottery, probability of winning the jackpot is 1/60. how many consecutive draws need to be made for there to be a greater than 98% chance that at least one jackpot prize will have been won?

 

[deterministic]

P(Not winning jackpot in 1 draw)=59/60
P(Not winning any jackpots in n draws)=(59/60)^n=1-P(Winning at least 1 jackpot in n draws)
So solve 1-(59/60)^n=0.98 for n

 

[Hermes1]

P(Not winning jackpot in 1 draw)=59/60
P(Not winning any jackpots in n draws)=(59/60)^n=1-P(Winning at least 1 jackpot in n draws)
So solve 1-(59/60)^n=0.98 for n

tnk u just did wat u said and got the correct answer.