juantheron
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P(1 machine then 1 machine) = 2/4 x 1/3, because there is a 2/4 chance of identifying the faulty machine with 1 test.The desired event can be achieved through getting 1 machine in each test, or 0 machines first test and 2 machines in second test.
P(only 2 tests) = P(1 machine then 1 machine) + P(0 machines then 2 machines)
= 1/4 x 1/3 + 2/4 x 2/4
= 1/3
Nevermind misinterpreted the question, 1/6 seems right after re-reading.P(1 machine then 1 machine) = 2/4 x 1/3, because there is a 2/4 chance of identifying the faulty machine with 1 test.
The event "0 machines then 2 machines" is 3 tests.