kooltrainer
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heres the question
i dunno why i cant get 0 if m don't equal to n
i dunno why i cant get 0 if m don't equal to n
1.ssglain said:We know that odd function x even function = odd function.
wot daa, dunno wots reimann hypothesis or arcsinxkony said:1.
(a) By considering an odd f(x) and an even g(x), or otherwise, prove this result [1]
(b) Hence show that x²arcsinx is odd. [2]
(b) hence, deduce the Reimann Hypothesis. [117]
hey how's it going.
this is from the products-to-sum chapter in the cambridge book ... u need to erm.. change sinmxcosnx to 0.5 sin(mx+nx)+cos(mx-nx)ssglain said:Where's this question from?
I think either way the integral is 0.
Let f(x) = sin(mx)
f(-x) = sin(-mx) = -sin(mx)
f(-x) = -f(x)
.: odd function
Let g(x) = cos(nx)
g(-x)=cos(-nx)=cos(nx)
g(-x)=g(x)
.: even function
We know that odd function x even function = odd function. We also know that the integral of any odd function from -a to a is 0. So the given integral has to be 0.
Simply integrating the given function will confirm this. After letting m = n, remember to rewrite sin(mx)cos(mx) = (1/2)*sin(2mx) using the double angle result for sine. The answer's 0, not pi.
Man, you crack me up.kony said:(a) By considering an odd f(x) and an even g(x), or otherwise, prove this result [1]
(b) Hence show that x²arcsinx is odd. [2]
(b) hence, deduce the Reimann Hypothesis. [117]