Why? (1 Viewer)

Shadowdude · Jul 23, 2011

Let's see if anyone can answer this...

$\textup{Let\;}f(x)=\frac{x^{3}+x^{2}+x+1}{x^{2}-1}$
$\textbf{1:}\;\textup{Determine\;if\;}f(x)=g(x)\;\textup{where}\;g(x)=\frac{x^{2}+1}{x-1}.\;\textup{If\;so,\;show\;how}$
$\textbf{2:}\;\textup{Evaluate}\;f(-1)\;\textup{and}\;g(-1).\textup{Why\;is\;this\;the\;case?}$

Just for fun. (If we could, let's leave this to some HSC students...)

ohexploitable · Jul 23, 2011

ohexploitable · Jul 23, 2011

For part 2, see above.

ohexploitable · Jul 23, 2011

ohexploitable said:
$\text{Only for }x+1\neq0$

$\text{i.e. }\frac{x+1}{x+1}=1\text{, which isn't possible if }x=-1$

ohexploitable · Jul 23, 2011

also,

hscishard · Jul 23, 2011

^ wtf lol
By eliminating a factor of the denominator, you have altered the domain of the original function, thus making it a new function.
Is there some fancy explaination?

Shadowdude · Jul 23, 2011

hscishard said:
^ wtf lol
By eliminating a factor of the denominator, you have altered the domain of the original function, thus making it a new function.
Is there some fancy explaination?

No... I think that's pretty much it.

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Why? (1 Viewer)

Shadowdude

Cult of Personality

ohexploitable

hey

ohexploitable

hey

ohexploitable

hey

ohexploitable

hey

hscishard

Active Member

Shadowdude

Cult of Personality

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